Certainly the physician is precluded from billing for services rendered to a relative, but as long as there is no financial relationship between the physician and the lab, I can't think of a reason why lab services cannot be billed normally. Here's a good question: If the lab services are billed to insurance and there is a coinsurance amount, will the physician (responsible party) be billed? If so, I would have to think Stark would not play into this scenario. I am, of course, not an attorney.