Medical Billing Forum
Coding => Coding => : shellabell32 September 08, 2010, 03:35:10 PM
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Our Doctor did an appendectomy w/lysis of adhesions. They are bundled codes so our manager asked us to bill the one with highest value. We (the billing dept) were wondering if that is correct coding. If they did the appendectomy should that be the procedure billed (44970) or is it okay to bill for lysis of adhesions (44180) only?
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I'm sorry, but I can't help you with this one. This is a very specific coding question and the answer could mean fraud or no fraud, and I am not a certified coder. I would be concerned in your position as well. Who is supposed to do the coding for the dr? Is the manager a coder? As a biller the claim should come to you coded and you should bill it as it came to you. Not make changes for payment purposes.
Best of luck in this one
Michele
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Thanks!
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Ditto with Michele. I believe that the 44180 is a componet of the app and can never be unbundled